Re: why is Temple of Doom a Prequel?

Posted by Greg from host-209-214-180-152.cae.bellsouth.net on July 23, 1999 at 09:53:21:

In Reply to: Re: why is Temple of Doom a Prequel? posted by California Jones on July 22, 1999 at 15:17:59:

Sure they were around, but they weren't nearly as powerful as in the late 30's. Anyway, I think they were less worried about the historical significance, than the audience's expectations. I'm sure to most people a sequel to Raiders meant, "Oh, right. Indiana Jones...Nazis, yeah." I think they were just trying to get away from having Nazis as the villians, so soon after using them in Raiders. Who knows, maybe someone on the set mentioned, "When do the Nazis show up?" So they thought they'd just set it earlier than Raiders.

: The Nazi argument makes no sense, as Raiders was set in 1937. WW2 had not happened then either. Also, the Nazi's were active LONG before 1935.

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