Re: why is Temple of Doom a Prequel?

[ Reply ] [ The Indyfan Forum ] [ FAQ ]

Posted by Sean from iah16-99.barrie.connex.net on July 22, 1999 at 06:01:03:

In Reply to: Re: why is Temple of Doom a Prequel? posted by ROB T. on July 21, 1999 at 22:31:23:

: We tried to answer this a couple of weeks ago but didn't really come to a solution. Some of the reasons suggested were to explain the absence of Marion. Or to explain the absence of the Nazis. Or maybe just to keep any of the events from "Raiders" from interfering with the plot of "Temple of Doom."
: I personally think it was an arbitrary decision and wasn't really meant to serve any real purpose. I doubt that Lucas or Spielberg would consider "Temple of Doom" to be a prequel per se. Not in the way that "Phantom Menace" is a prequel to "Star Wars."
: They may even have thought that nobody would really notice.

Hi:
Actually, I have read that `Temple of Doom' was set in 1935 so that the filmakers could avoid dealing with WWII in some capacity. I believe Spielberg was quoted once as saying something to that effect. If I can dig the article up I'll post it. Granted, Spielberg had dealt with and is dealing with WWII in his films, so who knows. Not long after `Temple of Doom' we had `Empire of the Sun' and shift to his more "serious" movies, so it's possible he was struggling with some of these things when `Temple of Doom' was filmed. Just my 2 cents.
Cheers,
Sean


Follow Ups:



Post a Followup:

Name:    
E-Mail:  
Subject: 
Comments:

Optional:

Link URL:   
Link Title: 
Image URL:  


[ Follow Ups ] [ Post Followup ] [ The Indyfan Forum ] [ FAQ ]